Interpretation of Texts (General)

by David Turell , Monday, October 04, 2010, 16:56 (4972 days ago) @ Balance_Maintained


> As for Jesus' genealogy, that was something else expressed in no uncertain terms. In a nutshell, it said that Mary could not conceive from the Holy Spirit, because the Holy Spirit is feminine. Elsewhere it says that the holy spirit is the feminine aspect of Jesus' spiritual form, since his spirit was considered to be androgynous in its original state. This would mean that Joseph was his blood father. I am particularly curious on this point myself. Some time back, and I forget where, I heard something about the early church altering documents to support the virgin birth etc.-Let me drop in to review the Jewish scholar point of view about Joshua ben Joseph, Jesus in Greek. His name was Joshua. In Matthew his Mother is referred to four times as a 'young woman' and once as a virgin. All itinerent preachers in Palestine at the time referred to themselves as 'sons of God'. All the Gospels, starting with Matthew, were written at least 40-80 years after Jesus death, all, therefore, hearsay. The passage in Josephus confirming that Jesus was 'one' true person and not a conglomerate story, is thought to be a forgery, because the style of writing does not match Josephus. And Josephus was born about the time of Jesus death, so his history of that period is from events told to him by others. The NT makes it quite clear that Jesus never asked to start a new church. Paul and others created a new theology around him and created a church of Jesus. The Golden Rule, do unto others, etc. was preached by Rabbi Hillel 100 years before Jesus.-Roman cruxifictions were their standard way to make an example and execute. The persons were put on a cross, head down, not as currently pictured.